The Quran and the Mission of the Church
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I have on my desk an NIV Study Bible and a Quran (The Meaning of the Holy Quran) translated by Yusuf Ali. I study them both. By studying the Bible, I hope to deepen my faith in God. By studying the Quran, I hope to better understand the religious experience of my Muslim friends, so that I can share with them my understanding of truth as it is found in the Bible.
The Quran is a helpful bridge to the Bible — containing much material that originated in stories told by Christians. It is likely that Muhammad encountered both Christians and Jews in his travels as a caravan trader.
But some have questioned this approach. Am I giving too much respect to the Quran? Am I playing with spiritual fire?
Such questions have to do with how we view the Quran. Is the Quran a divine word, does it contain some divine truth, is it just the work of a fallen human being or is it a satanic conspiracy? Those seem to be the different options offered by those who are involved in ministry to Muslims.
This question is important for our witness to Muslims, and for those helping MBBs (Muslim background believers) grow through discipleship.
The Quran offers a very mixed picture of Christianity — and this is why this question is a complicated one. On the one hand the Quran speaks very respectfully of Jesus. He is described as a prophet who did miracles (Q. 3:49). He is a Word of Allah, and a Spirit proceeding from Him (Q. 4:171). He is born of a virgin (Q. 3:47) and is mentioned by name twenty-five times in the Quran (whereas Muhammad is only mentioned by name four times).
On the other hand, the Quran plainly states that God cannot have a Son, that those who believe in the Trinity must desist (Q. 4:171) and that Jesus did not die on the cross (Q. 4:157).
So what should we do with a document that is loved and revered by 1.6 billion Muslims in the world today — yet specifically denounces core Christian beliefs?
A professor of missiology compared the Quran to the crescent moon — the crescent moon is a symbol of Islam. It reflects the light of divine truth as the crescent moon partially reflects the light of the sun, but it is dark in the middle. That is a helpful analogy. In the Reformed tradition we see signs of common grace in the world, and in other religions. That which is noble and generous points to a higher truth. Passages in the Quran that speak well of Jesus are such passages. But we also acknowledge the antithesis. There are elements in other religions that are affected by the Fall, they are corrupted and tainted by the brokenness of the human condition. So we must conclude that the Quran, though not divine, does reflect some divine truth. Such truth is mixed in with much that is not divine and in fact reflects the misunderstandings held by Muhammad about the Christian faith.
For this reason the Quran can be effectively, albeit cautiously, used to lead people to Jesus. Where the Quran reveals Jesus as a Word from God and as his Spirit, it creates interest in Jesus and leads Muslims to desire to know more about him. However, the much fuller revelation about Jesus and God’s one covenant of grace is found in the Bible, in both the Old and New Testaments, and that is where we must go. It is only through studying the full story of Scripture — of creation, fall, redemption, and consummation — that we truly come to know Jesus as God’s Son and our Savior. The Quran is a helpful document for leading people to Jesus if used in the right way.
We live in a time where Christians are increasingly rubbing shoulders with Muslims. I recommend that we become more familiar with the Quran, appreciate what it says about Jesus, and respect it as our Muslim friends respect it. From there we can use it as a bridge, with the help of the Holy Spirit, to enter into deeper conversations about Jesus, God’s divine Son, and about God, our heavenly Father.
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[quote]The Quran is a helpful bridge to the Bible[/quote]
Those are very dangerous waters you are treading in.
Yes, they are dangerous waters but waters in which we must dive.
Just to see what happens, I'm repeating my earlier comment, which has dissapeared:
"It is likely that Muhammad encountered both Christians and Jews in his travels as a caravan trader."
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It's not only likely that he encountered both Christians and Jews in his travels. He also tried to kill them all! The Koran, no matter how you spell it, is a Satan-inspired book. Stay away from it!
It seems to me that saying that we should respect the Quran the way Moslems respect it, reveals an ignorance of how moslems really regard the quran. We can understand how they respect it, but the only way to respect it the way they do is to accept Mohammed as the true prophet of Allah, and to follow all the precepts and commands in the quran. Which we cannot do.
Even those of you who view all Muslims as evil or not to be trusted or worse, shouldn't have issue with someone trying to better understand where they are coming from. "Know they enemy" yes? Only a very small percentage of Christians that I've encountered have even a modicum of knowledge about their own faith and what our Bible teaches, so I am very distrustful when they claim to understand Muslims and the Quran. I whole heartedly endorse those Christians who have a mature faith & have spent plenty of time in God's Word to help us understand our Muslim bother & sisters. You go Greg!
I agree you you there, but the statement:
[quote]The Quran is a helpful bridge to the Bible{/quote]
is wrong. Read and understand it, yes. Bridge to the Bible, absolutely not.
Bert, I agree with you that the quran will not help us to understand the bible better. But what I think was meant by the phrase (could have been said better), is that christians can use their knowledge of the quran to lead moslems to the bible. There are some similar sayings and there are some references to Jesus, which provide a kind of natural link to talking about the truths found in the bible. I agree with you that "Bridge" is a poor term, because it suggests we need to cross the bridge of quran in order to understand or receive scripture, and that is not so.
Thanks for your comments. I think in general this has been a productive discussion. I did not intend to imply that we should bridge to the Bible by understanding the Quran better. The Bible stands on its own as God's special revelation - a further one is not needed. However Muslims have a natural curiosity about Jesus. Where does that come from? The Quran. So in that sense the Quran is a bridge. We can also appreciate other aspects of their faith such as their devotion to prayer and to fasting (as it is Ramadan) which can spur us on to live out our own Christian faith more fully. My main point is that respect opens doors to both better relationships and also opportunities to witness to the Gospel. I hope that is clearer.
Greg: As much as I appreciate your willingness to understand Islam from within and have immersed yourself into Yusuf Ali's translation, I fear you may be inadvertently Christianizing Islam. Yusuf Ali's own notes to his translation debunk the idea that Jesus was the Word of God. Ali strongly stresses that Jesus was a word from Allah, and Ali suggests that this has nothing to do with the Logos doctrine as could easily be read from your comments.
From his book:
39. While he was standing in prayer in the chamber, the angels called unto her:
"Allah doth give thee glad tidings of Yahya, witnessing the truth of a Word from
Allah, and (be besides) noble, chaste, and a Prophet, --of the (goodly! company
of the righteous."
301. Notice: "a word from Allah", not "the word of Allah", the epithet that
mystical Christianity uses for Jesus. As stated in Sura 3:59 below, Jesus
was created by a miracle, by Allah's word "Be", and he was.
Secondly: the Arabic speaking "....the spirit of the Holy is never called the Holy Spirit in Islam. This is the trick of the translators; they make the spirit of the Holy out to be the Holy Spirit. In Islam the spirit of the Holy is not holy, but he is a property of the Holy, a slave of Allah (Abd Allah), and at the disposal of Allah...."[i] Many Muslim commentators, as well assert that the spirit which appeared to Muhammad was Gabriel and that he is equivalent to the Holy Spirit (see 2:97 and 16:102). Finally, in his "Ten Most Common Questions asked by Christian Missionaries against Islam" Zakir Naik asserts that he sees nothing unique about the spirit being associated with 'Isa as Surahs 15:29; 32:9 talk about Allah breathing his spirit into human beings.
[i] Abd al-Masih, "Who is the Holy Spirit in Islam?" http://grace-and-truth.org/AM-WhoIsTheHolySpiritInIslam-Lecture.htm (Accessed 2013/01/24)
Masih shows that a knowledge of Arabic is necessary to avoid Christianizing the Qur'an. With regards to the phrase 'the spirit of the Holy.' "This means, in Islam, when the Holy Spirit is written, it is never a spirit who is holy in himself. The word holy is not an attribute or an adjective, it is a genitive which means the spirit is not holy in itself but the spirit is property of the holy one. Here you have to distinguish the grammar in Arabic. This means holy is Allah and the spirit is his slave. The spirit is never of divine origin in Islam, even if it is wrongly translated in the different Qur'anic translations to blind the Christians. When we speak about the Holy Spirit in Islam, keep in mind, it is never the Holy Spirit, it is the spirit of the Holy, which means a slave of Allah. Just as Jesus is a slave of Allah in Islam, never Holy or divine in himself, so the spirit is not Holy or divine but he is a property of Allah, the Holy."
Salaam: Thank you for clarifying on the "spirit of the Holy." I do recognize the danger of "Christianizing Islam," and realize that there are nuances to these discussions. I do not wish to imply any kind of Logos interpretation to the word of the Quran. Point well made.
If Quran were the word of God, why were there so many weird prophecies in Quran? The following is the list of them:
Quran 2:24, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports the fuel for hell-fire is men and stones as if men and stones can trigger fire, since it mentions) But if ye cannot and of a surety ye cannot then fear the fire whose fuel is men and stones, which is prepared for those who reject faith.” The same is mentioned in the extracts below: Quran 3:10, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Aal-e-Imran/8 , mentions) Those who reject faith..They are themselves but fuel for the fire.”; Quran 72:14-155, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Jinn/8 , mentions) Amongst us are..some that swerve from justice..But those who swerve, they are (but) fuel for Hell-fire’”; Quran 21:98, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Anbiya/8 , since it mentions) Verily ye, (unbelievers), and the (false) gods that ye worship besides Allah, are (but) fuel for Hell!..”.
Quran 2:65-66, “(on the website, , http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports people could be transformed into apes if they transgressed the Sabbath, since it mentions) And well ye knew those amongst you who transgressed in the matter of Sabbath: We said to them: ‘Be ye apes, despised and rejected.’ So We made it an example to their own time and to their posterity, and a lesson to those who fear Allah.” The same is in Quran 7:166, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Araf/8 , mentions) When is their insolence they transgressed (all) prohibitions, We said to them: ‘Be ye apes, despised and rejected.”
Quran 6:160, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Anaam/8 , mentions)..He that doeth evil shall only be recompensed according to his evil: no wrong shall be done unto (any of them).” If Quran 6:160, “..He that doeth evil shall only be recompensed to his evil..”, the wrong has been done in him to cause him to be recompensed according to his evil. Why does Quran 6:160, “(mention)..no wrong shall be done unto (any of them).”? Hence, Quran 6:160 seems to be contradictory itself since on one hand it condemns evil and yet on another hand it mentions there is no wrong in doing it.
Quran 7:50, “(on the same website above mentions) The companions of the fire will call to the companions of the garden: ‘Pour down to us water or anything that Allah doth provide for your sustenance.’ They will say: ‘Both these things hath Allan forbidden to those who rejected him.” Why does Quran 7:50, “The companions of the fire.. call to the companions of the garden: ‘Pour down to us water..’..”, when the fire will dry out the water immediately?
Quran 9:35, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-Taubah/8 , supports the hell-fire can only brand their foreheads, their flanks and their backs instead of these include also the rest of their bodies, e.g. their chins, chests, legs, and it seems to be that they are protected from fire, since it mentions) On the Day when heat will be produced out of that (wealth) in the fire of Hell, and with it will be branded their foreheads, their flanks, and their backs, their flanks, and their backs – ‘This is the (treasure) which ye buried for yourselves: taste ye, then the (treasures) ye buried!” Why is it so in hell?
Quran 9:35, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-Taubah/8 , supports our wealth will produce heat that leads to the fire of hell, since it mentions) On the day heat will be produced out of that (wealth) in the fire of hell..”.
As Eccl 5:15, “(mentions) As he came forth of his mother’s womb, naked shall he return to go as he came, and shall take nothing of this labour, which he may carry away in his hand.”, the wealth, that we may have left behind on the earth, cannot cause us any harm, since we cannot bring it along after our decease. How can the wealth follow us to bring fire to hell?
Quran 14:16, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Ibrahim/8 , supports hell-fire cannot even dry up water and that causes drinking is possible in the hell, since it mentions) In front of such a one is Hell, and he is given, for drink, boiling fetid water.” The same is mentioned in the extracts below: Quran 88:2-7, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Ghashiya/8 , mentions)..that day, will be humiliated, The while they enter the Blazing Fire, The while they are given, to drink, of a boiling hot spring, No food will there be for them but a bitter Dhari’, Which will neither nourish nor satisfy hunger.”; Quran 14:16, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Ibrahim/8 , mentions) In front of such a one is Hell, and he is given, for drink, boiling fetid water.”
Quran 14:49-50, “(supports fire cannot eradicate their face but just covers it with fire, since it mentions on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Ibrahim/8 , that) And thou wilt see the sinners that day bound together in fetters; Their garments of liquid pitch, and their faces covered with fire;”. The same is mentioned in Quran 23:103-104, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Mumenoon/8 , that)..in Hell will they abide. The Fire will burn their faces, and they will therein grin, with their lips displaced.” The phrase, their lips displaced, here implies their lips are visible but that they turn up to be displaced.
Quran 17:97, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Isra/8 , supports paradise is not permissible for those who have physical defects, e.g. blind, dumb, deaf, since, to Allah, these defects have caused debasement on them, despite they believe and work righteousness, since it mentions)..On the Day of Judgment We shall gather, them together, prone on their faces, blind, dumb, and deaf: their abode will be hell: every time it shows abasement, We shall increase from the fierceness of the Fire.” This seems to be a warning for those, who believe in Allah, yet have physical defects, e.g. blind, dumb, and deaf.
Quran 18:102, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Kahf/8 , supports hell is for unbelievers’ entertainment, since it mentions)..verily We have prepared Hell for the Unbelievers for (their) entertainment.”
Mountains will be uprooted and lifted up and be scattered as dust, since Quran 20:105, “(mentions on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Taha/8 , that)..concerning the Mountains: say, ‘My Lord will uproot them and scatter them as dust;”. The same is mentioned in the extracts below: Quran 56:5-7, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Waqia/8 , that mentions)..the mountains shall be crumbled to atoms, and becoming dust scattered abroad, and ye shall be sorted out into three classes.”; Quran 77:10, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Mursalat/8 , mentions)..the mountains are scattered (to the winds) as dust.”
It is impossible for any mother to forget her suckling babe as each takes care of her child and yet Quran 22:2, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Hajj/8 , supports the antithesis, since it mentions) The day ye shall see it, every mother giving suck shall forget her suckling-babe, and even pregnant female shall drop her load (unformed)..”.
Quran 23:102, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Mumenoon/8 , seems to imply a person, whose good deed is heavier than evil deed, can attain salvation, since it mentions)..those whose balance (of good deeds, i.e. charity, donations) is heavy, - they will attain salvation:”. Salvation in Muslims turns up to be by good deeds. Those, who yield good deeds more than evil deeds, can have the access to paradise instead of the antithesis.
Quran 34:9, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Saba/8 , supports Allah could cause a portion of the sky to fall as if it, that were a solid piece in heaven, could be segregated in piece by piece instead of it would be impossible for any to segregate it as it consisted of merely immense space and innumerable planets, since it mentions)..We could cause the earth to swallow them up, or cause a piece of the sky to fall upon them..”.
Quran 38:56-57, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Sad/8 , mentions) Hell! – they will burn therein, - an evil bed (indeed, to lie on)! – Yea such! -then shall they taste it, - a boiling fluid, and fluid dark, mucky, intensely cold!-“. As the phrase, the Fire of Hell, in Quran 83:16 implies the hell is warm, why does Quran 38:56-57, “(mention) Hell..will burn..(with) a boiling fluid..(and yet shall be) intensely cold..”? Or in other words, though the word, hell-fire, is mentioned in Quran, cold and warm coexist in the hell.
Quran 37:62-66, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+As-Saaffat/8 , supports the hell fire is not strong enough to eradicate the Tree of Zaqqum, since it mentions) Is that the better entertainment or the Tree of Zaqqum? For We have truly made it (as) a trial for the wrong-doers. For it is a tree that springs out of the bottom of Hell-Fire: ..Truly they will eat thereof and fill their bellies therewith.”
Quran 38:85, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Sad/8 , supports hell can be filled, since it mentions) ‘That I will certainly fill hell with thee and those that follow thee, every one.’ ” If hell can be filled by you and those who follow you, no other people can fit into this hell as the place shall be fully occupied.
Quran 39:16, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Az-Zumar/8 , supports the hell-fire is above them and below them instead of also in their chests, legs, chins, since it mentions) They shall have layers of fire above them, and layers (of fire) below them: with this doth Allah warn off his servants: ‘O my servants then fear ye me!” and yet nothing is mentioned the fire is among them. To my curiosity, why is it so? There is no elaboration about it in the Quran.
Quran 39:27, “(on the same website above supports people in paradise may receive admonition, since it mentions) We have put forth for men, in this Quran every kind of paradise, in order that they may receive admonition.”
If hell fire can cause the devastation of a person, it is irrational for any to march towards it. Yet Quran 41:19, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Fussilat/8 , supports the antithesis, since it mentions) On the day that the enemies of Allah will be gathered together to the fire, they will be marched in ranks.”
Quran 41:21, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Fussilat/8 , supports the skin of a person can open its mouth to deliver its speech to him as if the skin can grow a mouth, since it mentions) They will say to their skins: ‘Why bear ye witness against us?’ They will say: ‘Allah hath given us speech, (he) who giveth speech to everything: He created you for the first time, and unto him were ye to return.”
Quran 46:25, “(on the same website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Ahqaf/8 , supports all things will be destroyed by Allah, since it mentions) ‘Everything will it destroy by the command by its Lord!’ ..”. If it were true that Quran 46:25, “Everything will it destroy by the command by its Lord! ..”, it implies Allah and all His believers would be in danger of the annihilation without exception. If it were true that Quran 46:25, “Everything will it destroy..”, Allah would be anxious of His existence, since He would not prolong His life span in this universe. Not only that, all His believers would tremble of their salvation for the annihilation that would come to them.
Quran 50:30, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Qaf/8 , supports one day hell, that is a non-living thing, shall deliver its speech as if it can turn up to be the living thing on that day, since it mentions) One Day We will ask Hell, “Art thou filled to the full?” It will say, “Are there any more (to come)?”
Heavy mountains will fly like birds with wings, since Quran 52:10, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-tur/8 , mentions)..the mountains will fly hither and thither.” If heavy mountains will fly like birds with wings, it seems to be as a fairy tale that even mountains would float in the air.
Quran 56:93-94, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Waqia/8 , supports boiling water and hell-fire can be meant for entertainment, since it mentions) For him is entertainment with boiling water, and burning in hell-fire.” If hell-fire can be for entertainment, why does Quran warn about the danger about it?
Quran 69:13-14, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Haaqqa/8 , supports the solid earth and mountains shall be crushed into powder at one stroke, since it mentions) And the earth is moved, and its mountains, and they are crushed to powder at one stroke.” Assume this solid earth can be destroyed by the hit of fireball meteor. By logic, a fireball meteor hits the earth with a stroke cannot turn this solid earth into powder unless immense fireballs hit against it persistently with many strokes. Yet Quran 69:14, “(seems to be a fairy tale that it takes one stroke to annihilate the earth, since it mentions).. the earth.. crushed to powder at one stroke.” How does one stroke from fireball meteor be able turn the earth into powder? The same is in Quran 89:21, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Fajr/8 , that mentions)..the earth is pounded to powder.”
The sky will be like molten brass, despite it constitutes space and planets, since Quran 70:8, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Maarij/8 , mentions) The day that the sky will be like molten brass,”.
The solid mountains will turn up to be like wool, since Quran 70:9, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Maarij/8 , mentions)..the mountain will be like wool,”. The same is mentioned in Quran 101:5, “(that).. the mountains will be like carded wool.”
Quran 78:20, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+An-Naba/8 , supports the solid mountain can vanish, since it mentions)..the mountain shall vanish, as if they were mirage.” The same is mentioned in Quran 81:3, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-Takwir/8 , mentions) When the mountains vanish (like a mirage);”.
Quran 78:21, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+An-Naba/8 , supports hell can be used by people for a place of ambush to defend themselves, since it mentions)..hell is as a place of ambush.”
The sun in Quran is like a round piece of foldable paper instead of a sphere with hot plasma, since Quran 81:1, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-Takwir/8 , mentions) When the sun (with its spacious light) is folded up;”.
How solid that the earth is and yet Quran 84:3-4, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Inshiqaq/8 , mentions)..the earth is flattened out and casts forth what is written in it and becomes (clean) empty.”
1.Does Gen 17:20 support God blessed all the descendants of Ishmael through Abraham?
The extracts below are listed on the website, http://www.usislam.org/76muham.htm , under the subtitle, another comforter, with the heading, ‘History of Truth, The Truth about God and Religions, by Dr. Adel Elsaie: “It is a fact that Muhammad, like all the Arabs, came from Ismael, the son of Abraham. Just like the Jews discredit Jesus, both the Jews and the Christians claim that Ismael was an illegitimate son of Abraham. Another insult added to the prophets of God. They are talking about Abraham, the father of all the prophets, the prophet that God honoured in the three religions of Judaism, Christianity, and Islam. They maintain that Isaac was superior to Ismael. But that is not what the Bible states: Gen 16:10..Gen 17:20..We still see some verses in the Bible that escaped all the alterations and adaptations. The above verses clearly that God blessed Ismael..”. Discuss.
My comment: The reasons why it is irrational to assume Muhammad would inherit the covenant in Gen 17:20 despite he was the descendant of Ishmael:
Let us meditate the covenant that God had with Isaac as well as His covenant with Ishmael in Gen 17:19-20 below:
For Isaac, Gen 17:19, “..God said, Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed; and thou shalt call his name Isaac: and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, and I will establish my covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, and with his seed after him.”
Gen 17: 20, “And as for Ishmael, I have heard thee: Behold, I have blessed him, and will make him fruitful, and will multiply him exceedingly; twelves princes shall he beget, and I will make him a great nation.”
From the verses above, the disparities between them are perceptible as follows:
The validity of the covenant that God had with Isaac is meant for perpetuality since the phrase, everlasting covenant, is mentioned in Gen 17:19.
Yet as His covenant with Ishmael seemed momentary since the phrase, everlasting covenant, is not mentioned in Gen 17:20, it is irrational to use this verse to conclude His covenant with Ishmael could cover till the birth of Muhammad for the support his advent was the fulfilment of Gen 17:20.
The phrase, with his seed after him, in Gen 17:19 gives another intimation that the validity of the covenant that God had with Isaac covers also his seed or his descendants after his decease.
Yet as nothing is mentioned in Gen 17:20 that His covenant with Ishmael covers also his seed after his decease, it is irrational to conclude Muhammad could inherit the covenant that He had with him and turned up his advent was the fulfilment of Gen 17:20.
Abraham’s wife did not conceive Ishmael, but Gen 16:1, “..Sarai(‘s)..handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar.”, since Gen 16:15, “(mentions she)..bare Abram’s son: and..(his name was) Ishmael.” As the phrase, Abram said..one born in my house is mine heir, in Gen 15:3 implies Abram had a son and the son should refer undoubtedly to Gen 16:11, “.. Ishmael..” and yet the phrase, the LORD.. saying..This shall not be thine heir..but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir, in Gen 15:4 implies God did not regard Ishmael to be the heir of Abraham. As Ishmael was not regarded by Him to be the heir of Abraham, that would be the reason why His covenant to him would be momentary and yet His covenant with Isaac had perpetual influence upon his seed. The same is mentioned in 21:10, “(that)..she said unto Abraham..the son of this bondwoman(, Hagar,) shall not be heir..”.
Despite Gen 17:26, “..Abraham circumcised..Ishmael..” and Gen 21:4, “..Abraham circumcised.. Isaac..”, Gen 21:12, “..God said unto Abraham..in Isaac shall thy seed be called.” instead of in Ishmael shall his seed be blessed as well. As His promise in Gen 21:12 did not incorporate the seed of Ishmael to be blessed but the seed of Isaac despite He circumcised both, He did not intend Ishmael to inherit the blessing that He had with Abraham that Gen 17:7-8, “..(would cause him to inherit)..Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and (He would) be (his) God.” Or in other words, the circumcision of Ishmael in Gen 17:26 would not cause his seed to inherit the promise that Gen 17:8, “..(He would) be..(his) God.” and subsequently to benefit Muhammad, who was his descendant, to be his God?
God’s blessing Gen 17:20, “..for Ishmael..(was) Behold, I..(would) bless..him, and..(would) make him fruitful, and..(would) multiply him exceedingly, twelve princes..(would) he beget, and..(He would) make him a great nation.” The same is mentioned in Gen 21:17-18, “(that).. God..called Hagar..I..(would) make him a great nation.” Yet His blessing with Gen 17:20, “.. Ishmael..” was merely to establish a great nation and yet was not supreme as compared to Isaac’s blessing that covered his seed also, since Gen 21:12, “(mentions)..in Isaac shall thy seed be called.” As the blessing of Isaac covered also Gen 21:12, “..Isaac(‘s)..seed..”, it caused his son, Jacob, to be blessed, since Gen 32:27-28, “..(mentions) Thy name..(should) be called no more Jacob, but Israel: for as a prince..(had) thou power with God and men, and..(had) prevailed.” Besides, He had repeated the oath that He had with Abraham in Gen 22:17-18 to Gen 26:1, “..Isaac..” in Gen 26:3-5, and to Gen 28:10, “..Jacob..” in Gen 28:14 as well for the promise that Gen 17:8, “..(He would) be their God.”
Isaac was Abraham’s son (Gen 21:4), Ishmael was Abraham’s son (Gen 17:23) and Jacob was Isaac’s son (Gen 27:21). Or in other words, Jacob was Abraham’s grandson. As Ishmael was Abraham’s son and Jacob was Abraham’s grandson, God would bless Ishmael and to call him to inherit the promised land instead of Jacob, since Jacob was not the immediate son of Abraham but Ishmael. As Deut 1:8, “(mentions) Behold, I have set the land before you: go in and possess the land which the LORD sware unto your fathers, Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, to give unto them and to seed after them.” and yet nothing is mentioned that Ishmael could inherit the land of Canaan except Isaac, it implies that He had excluded Ishmael to benefit from His covenant with Abraham in Gen 17:19 despite he was blessed with a great nation. If God had chosen Ishmael for the promised land, i.e. Canaan, why did Deut 1:8 not include his name especially he was also Abraham’s son the same as Isaac? As Deut 1:8 mentions Isaac, Abraham’s son, was blessed with the promised land, i.e. Canaan, instead of Ishmael, who was also Abraham’s son, it has placed a query whether Ishmael had inherited the covenant that Abraham had with God (Gen 17:20). In other words, despite God promised him to have a great nation (Gen 17:20), he was removed from the blessing that He had with Abraham in Gen 17:8 that He could inherit Gen 17:8, “..all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God.” As he did not benefit himself to inherit the covenant that Abraham had with Him for Gen 27:18, his descendants were not given with a chance to inherit Canaan and He would be Ishmael’s God that He promised Abraham in Gen 17:8 except the descendants of Jacob.
Sarai, Abraham’s wife, was blessed to be a mother of nations since Gen 17:15-16, “..God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be.. yea, I will bless her, and she shall be a mother of nations, kings of people shall be of her.” Despite Sarai was blessed to be the mother of nations and yet nothing is mentioned in these verses that this was His everlasting covenant with her, it turns up that nothing is highlighted in the OT that she would be the mother of those who were the seed of Isaac in the future. Likewise, Muhammad would not inherit the covenant that He had with Ishmael, since nothing is mentioned in Gen 17:20 that it was His everlasting covenant with him.
Moreover, not only 1 Chr 1:28, “..Abraham..(had a son namely) Ishmael.”, but also 1 Chr 8:38, “..Azel(‘s) ..son ..” and the grandson of David as well. The following is a list of genealogies for the three different persons with the same name, Ishmael:
The genealogy of Abraham’s son, Ishmael, was as follows: Gen 25:12-15, “..these are the sons of Ishmael..the firstborn of Ishmael, Nebajoth; and Kedar, and Adbeel, and Mibsam, And Mishma, and Dumah, and Massa, Hadar, and Tema, Jetur, Naphish, and Kedemah..”.
The genealogy of another Ishmael that could be traced back from Benjamin and even from Isaac was as follows: Gen 21:4, “..Abraham..his son Isaac..”; Gen 27:21, “..Isaac said unto Jacob..my son..”; Gen 46:19, “The sons of..Jacob..Benjamin.”; Josh 18:21-25, “.. the tribe of the children of Benjamin.. Gibeon..”; 1 Chr 9:35-36, “..Gibeon (whose one of the sons was).. Ner..”; 1 Chr 9:39-42, “And Ner Begat Kish, and Kish begat Saul, and Saul begat Jonathan.. the son of Jonathan was Meribbaal; and Meribbaal begat Micah..the sons of Micah were.. Ahaz..Ahaz begat Jarah; and Jarah begat Alemeth, and Azmaveth, and Zimri; and Zimri begat Moza,”. 1 Chr 8:37, “.. Moza begat Binea: Rapha was his son, Eleazah his son, Azel his son.” Lastly, 1 Chr 8:38, “..Azel.. (whose one of his) sons..(was) Ishmael..”.
The genealogy of the other Ishmael that could be traced back from David and even from Isaac was as follows: Gen 21:5, “Abraham..his son Isaac..”; Gen 27:22, “..Jacob..Isaac his father..”; Gen 35:23, “..Jacob’s first born..Judah..”; Gen 46:12, “the sons of Judah..Pharez..”; Ruth 4:18-22, “..Pharez begat Hezron, And Hezron begat Ram, and Ram begat Amminadab, And Amminadab begat Nahshon, and Nahshon begat Salmon, And Salmon begat Boaz, and Boaz begat Obed, And Obed begat Jesse, and Jesse begat David.”; 2 Sam 5:13-17, “..there were..sons..born to David..Elishama..”; Jer 41:1, “.. Ishmael the son of Nethaniah the son of Elishama..”.
As there were three persons, namely Ishmael, in the Bible and two of them had their lineages to be traceable from Abraham’s son, Isaac, it is irrational to use any word, Ishmael, in the Bible to conclude it had any relationship with Abraham whose maid, i.e. Hagar, conceived, since, who knows, it may refer to the child of Azel (1 Chr 8:38) or Nethaniah (Jer 41:1).
Besides, despite the writer above mentions about Abraham, the following is a list of notable discrepancies of the so-called Abraham in Quran as compared to Abraham in the Old Testament:
Quran 2:124, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports Abraham was tempted by God and He blessed him with nations and yet he pleaded Him for his offspring also, since it mentions)..Abraham was tried by his Lord with certain commands, which he fulfilled: He said: ‘I will make thee an Imam to the Nations.’ He pleaded: ‘And also (Imams) from my offspring!’ He answered: ‘But My promise is not within the reach of evil-doers.’
Gen 22:1, “(supports Abraham did not plead Him for the blessing of his offspring but He blessed them for his compliance with His word, since it mentions)..God did tempt Abraham ..” and His covenant to him after the temptation was Gen 22:17-18, “.. in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply they seed..and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.”
Quran 2:125, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports His covenant with Abraham was to sanctify His house, since it mentions)..we covenanted with Abraham and, that they should sanctify My House for those who compass it round, or use it as a retreat, or bow, or prostrate themselves (therein) in prayer.”
Yet the extracts below support His covenant with Abraham was the conferring of the land of Canaan to his seed after him and He would proliferate his seed and would be their God instead of they would sanctify His house: Gen 17:1-2, “..the LORD appeared to Abram, and said..I will make my covenant between me and thee..” and Gen 17:8, “..I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee..all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession, and I will be their God.”; Gen 22:15-18, “..the angel of the LORD called unto Abraham..the second time, and said By myself have I sworn, saith the LORD, for because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son: That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and..in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.”
Quran 2:132, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports Abraham conveyed the message to Jacob that God chose him due to his faith in Islam, since it mentions) And this was the legacy that Abraham left to his sons, and so did Jacob; ‘Oh my sons! Allah hath chosen the Faith for you; then die not except in the Faith of Islam.”
Yet nothing is mentioned in the Bible that Abraham’s religion is Islam.
Quran 3:33, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Aal-e-Imran/8 , supports Allah chose Adam and Noah above all people, since it mentions) Allah did choose Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of ‘Imran above all people,-“.
Nothing is mentioned in the OT that God chose Adam and Noah above all people’ except Israel, since Deut 26:14-15, “(mentions)..God..bless..Israel..” that Deut 26:18, “..the LORD hath avouched thee this day to be his peculiar people, as he hath promised thee, and that thou shouldest keep all his commandments; and to make thee high above all nations..”. The same is mentioned in Pss 135:4, “(that) For the LORD hath chosen Jacob unto himself, and Israel for his peculiar treasure.”
In the NT, Christ has redeemed Christians and turns them to be a peculiar people, since Tit 2:14, “(mentions) Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.” The same is in 1 Pet 2:9, “(that mentions)..ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people..who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light.”
Quran 6:75-78, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Anaam/8 , supports Abraham was idolatry and called a star and a moon and the sun to be his Lord, since it mentions) We show Abraham the power and the laws of the heavens and the earth, that he might (with understanding) have certitude. When the night covered him over, He saw a star: He said: ‘This is my Lord.’ But when it set, He said, ‘I love not those that set.’ When he saw the moon rising in splendour, he said: ‘This is my Lord.’ But when the moon set, He said, ‘unless my Lord..When he saw the sun rising in splendour, he said: ‘This is my Lord..’ “.
Yet nothing is mentioned in the OT that Abraham could be idolatry to treat the moon or the star or the moon to be equivalent to God except the God in heaven.
Quran 6:83-84, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Anaam/8 , mentions) That was the reasoning about Us, which We gave to Abraham (to use) against his people..We gave him Isaac and Jacob: all guided..”. The phrase, Abraham..We gave him.. Jacob..all guided, in Quran 6:83-84 implies God gave Abraham for all the guidance that Jacob needed in his lifespan. As Abraham’s sons were Ishmael (Gen 17:23) and Isaac (Gen 21:4) instead of that included Jacob, why would Quran 6:83-84 mention God gave Abraham about all the guidance that He had about Jacob as His guidance for him might not have any impact on him?
Nothing is mentioned in the Bible that God gave Abraham all the guidance that Jacob needed to know.
Quran 19:58, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Maryam/8 , supports God carried Noah in the Ark and the posterity of Abraham and Israel as well, since it mentions) ‘..those who We carried (in the Ark) with Noah, and of the posterity of Abraham and Israel..”.
The extracts below prove Abram and Israel were not the immediate sons of Noah but his descendants: Gen 6:10, “..Noah begat..Shem..”; Gen 11:11, “..Shem..begat Arphaxad..”; Gen 10:24, “..Arphaxad begat Salah..”; Gen 11:14, “..Salah..begat Eber.”; Gen 11:16, “..Eber.. begat Peleg.”; Gen 11:18, “Peleg..begat Reu:”; Gen 11:20, “..Reu..begat Serug:”; Gen 11:22, “..Serug..begat Nahor.”; Gen 11:24, “Nahor..begat Terah.”; Gen 11:26, “..Terah..begat Abram..”; Gen 17:5, “Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham.”; Gen 21:3, “..Abraham..son..Isaac.”; 1 Chr 1:28, “The sons of Abraham; Isaac..”; Gen 27:21, “..Isaac said unto Jacob..my son..”; Gen 32:28, “..Thy name shall be called no more Jacob, but Israel..”.As Abraham and Israel were the descendants of Noah and were not born while the great flood appeared, why would Quran 19:58, “(mention)..We carr(y) (in the Ark) with Noah, and the posterity of Abraham and Israel..”, as if they were in the ark with Noah?
Even if some insist the phrase, (in the Ark), is wrongly inserted into this verse, a query is raised.When did Quran 19:58, “..(God) carr(y)..with Noah, and of the posterity of Abraham and Israel..” as all of them were not born at the same time?
Quran 33:7, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Ahzab/8 , supports they took a solemn covenant from Abraham, since it mentions) And remember We took from the prophets their covenant: As (we did) from thee: from Abraham..We took from them a solemn covenant.” Yet Quran 4:21-22, “(refers the solemn covenant to marriage, since it mentions on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+An-Nisa/8 , that).. how could ye take it when ye have gone in unto each other, and they have taken from you a solemn covenant? And marry not women whom your fathers married, except what is past: It was shameful and odious, an abominable custom indeed.”
Gen 17:7-8, “..(does not support they took from Abraham the solemn covenant about marriage, but His covenants with him that He would be their God and the blessing for his seed, since it mentions His initial) covenant..(with him to be)..I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee, the land wherein thou art a stranger, all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God.” His second covenant with him was Gen 22:16, “..By myself have I sworn, saith the LORD, for because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son: That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and..in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.”
Quran 37:100-107, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+As-Saaffat/8 , supports Abraham did not physically offer his son to God but through vision, since it mentions) ‘O my Lord! Grant me a righteous (son!’ ..Then, when (the son) reached (the age of) (serious) work with him, he said: ‘O my son! I see in vision that I offer thee in sacrifice: Now see what is thy view!’ (The son) said: ‘O my father! Do as thou art commanded: thou will find me, if Allah so wills one practising patience and Constancy!’ ..We called out to him ‘O Abraham!’ ‘Thou hast already fulfilled the vision!’ ..And we ransomed him with a momentous sacrifice:”.
The above verses seem absurd that if Abraham offered his son to Him through vision instead of through physical attempt, why would Allah praise him to have fulfilled the vision when it was just a vision or a dream instead of really offered him to Him?
Gen 22:1-2, “(supports Abraham physically offered his son as a burnt offering, since it mentions)..it came to pass after these things, that God did tempt Abraham..And he said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest and get thee into the land of Moriah, and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of.”
The discrepancies between the so-called Abraham in Quran and Abraham in the Bible have placed a query whether Quran is the continuity of the Old Testament.
Not only the so-called Abraham in Quran diverges from the OT, but the so-called Ishmael in Quran as mentioned by the writer also differs from what is in the OT. A list of discrepancies below about Ishmael between Quran and the Bible for the enlightenment:
Quran 2:127, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports Abraham and Ismail erected a house for prayer, since it mentions) And remember Abraham and Ismail raised the foundations of the House (with this prayer): ‘Our Lord! Accept (this service) from us: For Thou art the All-Hearing, the All-knowing.”
Gen 16:15, “(does not support both erected the house for prayer, since Ishmael was dissociated from Abraham when Hagar carried him as a child to Egypt due to his wife, Sarah, told him to cast them out, since it mentions)..Hagar bare Abram a son.. Ishmael.” When 21:7-11, “..Sarah..(gave birth to) Isaac..(, ) Abraham made a great feast the same day..Isaac was weaned. And Sarah saw the son of Hagar(, i.e. Ishmael) the Egyptian..mocking..she said unto Abraham, Cast out this bondwoman: for the son of this bondwoman shall not be heir with my son..Isaac.” That caused Gen 21:14, “..Abraham rose up early in the morning.. Hagar..putting..on her shoulder..and the child..(and went)..away: and..wandered in the wilderness of Beersheba.” and that resulted him to station in Gen 21:21, “..Egypt.” As Hagar brought Ishmael into Gen 21:21, “..Egypt.” while he was Gen 21:14, “..(a) child..”, it is spurious to assume that Quran 2:127, “Abraham and Ishmael could be together to raise the foundation of the House..” for prayer.
Quran 2:127-128, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports Abraham and Ishmael prayed to Allah to proselyte them to be Muslims, since it mentions)..Abraham and Ishmael raised the foundations of the House (With this player): .. ‘Our Lord! Make of us Muslims..”.
None can find this prayer in the book of Genesis.
Quran 2:133, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports the people witnessed they worshipped the god of Ismail before Jacob, since it mentions) Were ye witness when death appeared before Jacob? Behold, he said to his sons: ‘What will ye worship after me.’ They said: ‘We shall worship Thy god and the god of thy fathers, of Abraham, Ismail and Isaac, the one (True) Allah: To Him we bow (in) Islam.” The phrase, Were ye witness when death appeared before Jacob..They said..the god of..Ismail, in Quran 2:133 implies the person could witness which god that Ismail believed.
My comment: As the phrase, Abraham rose up early in the morning..(for his farewell of) Hagar..putting it on her shoulder..and the child..and sent her away..(to) wander..in the wilderness of Beer-sheba, in Gen 21:14 implies he bid his farewell to Hagar with her child, Ishmael, to the wilderness of Beer-sheba in Gen 21:21, “..Egypt.”, how could he be aware of which god that Ismail believed as he was in Egypt and was no longer in contact with Jacob?
Besides, no doubt the writer does mention Isaac, the extracts below show the so-called Isaac in Quran also differs from what is in the Bible:
Quran 11:69-72, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Hud/8 , supports Isaac’s wife laughed before she heard the news about her conception of a child. The reason that triggered her laugh was some went not towards a roasted calf for their fear, since it mentions) There came our messengers to Abraham with glad tidings. They said, ‘Peace! He answered, ‘Peace!’ and hastened to entertain them with a roasted calf. But when he saw their hands went not towards the (meal), he felt some mistrust of them, and conceive a fear of them. They said: ‘Fear not: We have been sent against the people of Lut.’ And his wife was standing (there), and she laughed: But we gave her glad tiding of Isaac, and after him, of Jacob. She said: ‘Alas for me! shall I bear a child seeing I am an old woman, and my husband here is an old man? That would indeed be a wonderful thing!” As the phase, she laughed, is mentioned in Quran 11:71 prior to the phrase, we gave her glad tiding of Isaac, it implies Sarah laughed prior to her reception of the news for the glad tiding of the birth of Isaac.
Gen 18:6-7, “(supports Abraham entertained his guest with a tender calf and yet nothing is mentioned here it was roasted, since it mentions)..Abraham hastened into the tent unto Sarah, and said, Made ready quickly three measures of fine meal, knead it, and make cake upon the hearth.And Abraham ran unto the herd, and fetcht a calf tender and good, and gave it unto a young man; and he hasted to dress it.”
Gen 18:10-12, “(supports his wife laughed after hearing the news that she would conceive instead of realising they went not towards a roasted calf, since it mentions) And he said.. Sarah thy wife shall have a son..Now Abraham and Sarah were old and well stricken in age..Therefore Sarah laughed within herself, saying, After I am wazed old shall I have pleasure, my lord being old also?”
Quran 14:39, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Ibrahim/8 , supports Abraham prayed to have a child when he was in old age, since it mentions) ‘Praise be to Allah, Who hath granted unto me in old age Ismail and Isaac: for truly my Lord is He, the Hearer of prayer!” The phrase, Allah..hath granted unto me in old age..truly my Lord is He..the Hearer of prayer, here implies Allah answered his prayer for his wish to have a child.
Gen 18:12-13, “(gives the intimation that they did not pray for a child.Or else, there was no reason for Him to question Abraham whether he was aware of nothing was too hard for Him to fulfil the prophecy to have his wife to conceive despite they were old, since it mentions)..Sarah laughed within herself, saying, After I am waxed old shall I have pleasure, my lord being old also? And the LORD said unto Abraham, Wherefore did Sarah laugh, saying, Shall I of a surety bear a child, which am old? Is any thing too hard for the LORD? ..”.
Quran 19:49, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Maryam/8 , supports Isaac was a prophet, since it mentions)..We bestowed on him Isaac and Jacob, and each one of them We made a prophet.”
Nothing is mentioned in the Bible that Isaac was a prophet.
Quran 21:72-73, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Anbiya/8 , supports Allah made Isaac and Jacob to be leaders and gave them inspiration to do good deeds; to establish regular prayers; and to practise regular charity, since it mentions) And We bestowed on him Isaac and, as an additional gift, (a grandson), Jacob, and We made righteous men of every one (of them). And We made them leaders, guiding (men) by Our Command, and We sent them inspiration to do good deeds, to establish regular prayers, and to practise regular charity; and they constantly served Us (and Us only).”
Nothing is mentioned in the Bible that God inspired Isaac and Jacob to do good deeds and to establish regular prayers and to practise regular charity.
From the above analyses, it is irrational to conclude Quran is the continuity of the OT due to the vast discrepancies between them.
1.Do Moses and Muhammad look alike?
The extract below is mentioned under the subtitle 1) A Prophet like Moses:, under the sub-heading, ‘(3) Biblical Prophecies on the Advent of Muhammad, the Prophet of Islam’, on the website, https://www.webpages.uidaho.edu/~msa/tour/ch1-3.htm : “There were hardly any two prophets who were so much alike as Moses and Muhammad. Both were given a comprehensive law and code of life. Both encountered their enemies and were victorious in miraculous ways. Both were accepted as prophets and statesmen. Both migrated following conspiracies to assassinate them. Analogies between Moses and Jesus overlook not only the above similarities but other crucial ones as well. These include the natural birth, family life, and death of Moses and Muhammad but not of Jesus. Moreover Jesus was regarded as a prophet of God, as Moses and Muhammad were and as Muslims believe Jesus was. So, this prophecy refers to the Prophet Muhammad and not to Jesus, because Muhammad is more like Moses than Jesus. Discuss.
My comment: Let us section the number of similitudes between Moses and Muhammad that have been raised by the writer above for detailed analyses as follows:
The writer above comments the resemblances of Moses and Muhammad that both were given a comprehensive law and code of life and yet the extracts below prove the existence of underlying contravention of Quranic law against Moses’ law:
Exo 20:1-3, “..God spake..I am the LORD thy God..Thou shalt have no other gods before me.”
Likewise, Quran 14:30, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Ibrahim/8 , objects people to be idolatry, since it mentions) And they set up (idols) as equal to Allah, to mislead (men) from the path! Say: ‘Enjoy (your brief power) But verily ye are making straightway for Hell.” The same is mentioned in the extracts below: Quran 29:17, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Ankaboot/8 , mentions) For ye do worship idols besides Allah, and ye invent falsehood. The things that ye worship besides Allah have no power to give you sustenance: then seek ye sustenance from Allah, serve Him, and be grateful to Him: to Him will be your return.”; Quran 2:165, “(mentions on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , that) Yet there are men who take (for worship) others besides Allah, as equal (with Allah): They love them as they should love Allah..”.
The following are the proofs that Quran fosters idolatry:
The purpose for every Muslim to proceed to Mecca to compass round Safa and Marwa (the two mountains) is 2:158, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports to have his or her sins to be obliterated, since it mentions) Behold! Safa and Marwa are among the symbols of Allah. So if those who visit the house in the season or at other times, should compass them round, it is no sin in them. And if anyone obeyeth his own impulse to good, be sure that Allah is He who recogniseth and knoweth.” The phrase, Safa and Marwa are the symbols of Allah..those who compass them round..it is no sin them, here implies a man, who has been to Mecca to compass the Safa and Marwa, the two mountains, round shall have no sin in him. Or in other words, it indirectly implies no matter what sins they have committed, e.g. adultery, polygamy, rape, their sins can be obliterated once they have compassed round Safa and Marwa. The same is mentioned in the extracts below: Sahih al-Bukhari 4495, in-book reference: Book 65, Hadith 22, USC-MSA web (English): Vol 6, Book 60, Hadith 22, “(on the website, https://sunnah.com/bukhari:4495 , mentions)..When Islam came, they asked Allah’s messenger about it, whereupon Allah revealed: ‘Verily Safa and Marwa (i.e. two mountains at Mecca) are among the symbols of Allah. So it is not harmful of those who perform the Hajj of the house (of Allah) or perform Umra, to ambulate (Tawaf) between them.”; Sahih al-Bukhari 1648, in-book reference: Book 25, Hadith 129, USC-MSA web (English): Vol 2, Book 26, Hadith 710, “(on the website, https://sunnah.com/bukhari:1648 , mentions)..As-safa and Al-Marwa are Marwa are among the symbols of Allah. It is therefore no sin for him who performs the pilgrimage to the Kaba, or perform Tawaf between them.’ ” (2.158); Sunan an-Nasai 2968, in-book reference: Book 24, Hadith 351, English translation: Vol 3, Book 24, Hadith 2971, “(on the website, https://sunnah.com/nasai:2968 , mentions)..Verily As-Safa and Al-Marwah (two mountains in Makkah) are the symbols of Allah. So it is not a sin on him who performs Hajj or Urmrah (Pilgrimage) of the House (the Kabah at Makkah) to perform the going (Tawaf) between them (As-Safa and Al-Marwah..”; Sahih Muslim 1277c, in-book reference: Book 15, Hadith 287, USC-MSA web (English): Book 7, Hadith 2925, “(on the website, https://sunnah.com/muslim:1277c , mentions)..Verily al-Safa and al-Marwa are among the signs of Allah; So he who performed Hajj or Umra it is no sin on him if he circumambulates them..”; Sahih Muslim 1277d, in-book reference: Book 15, Hadith 288, USC-MSA web (English): Book 7, Hadith 2926, “(mentions on the website, https://sunnah.com/muslim:1277d , that)..Verily al-Safa and Al-Marwa are among the signs of Allah so he who perform Hajj or Umra it is no sin on him if he should circumambulate between them..”. The extract below is mentioned on the website, https://www.halaltrip.com/other/blog/benefits-of-the-hajj/ , under the subtitle, 3) Seek Absolution from sins, that “We are all sinners, there is no denying that. One of the most important reasons to perform Hajj is to seek forgiveness from Allah. The best part is that the sins of a believer who’s Hajj have been accepted is wiped clean entirely. How merciful is our Lord!” Refer to be the picture on the website, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Safa_and_Marwa , and it shows the pictures of how the so-called Safa and Marwa look like.
If a person would need to proceed to Mecca to compass round Safa and Marwa for the absolution of his sins instead of confessing their sins before God, he would have treated Safa and Marwa to be as if they were God to have the power to absolve sin.Or in other words, it is the work of idolatry in which Exo 20:1-3 forbids.If he, who compassed Safa and Marwa round, were not idolatry, why would Quran 2:158, “(treat) Safa and Marwa (to be)..the symbols of Allah ..” as if these two mountains could be the representatives of God to pardon him?
If they were not idolatry, why would they follow the direction of Qibla to pray? Quran 2:144, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , supports Muslims have to turn their face to the sacred mosque, since it mentions)..We turn thee to a Qibla that shall please thee. Turn then thy face in the direction of the sacred mosque: Wherever ye are, turn your faces in that direction ..”. As Quran 2:144 demands them to turn to the sacred mosque, it leads Quran 2:115, “(on the same website above supports Allah belongs to the east and the west instead of to the south and the west, since it mentions) To Allah belong the east and the west..”. The same is mentioned in the extracts below: Quran 2:142, “(on the same website above mentions)..Allah belong both east and west..”; Quran 2:149-150, “(on the same website above mentions) From whencesoever Thou startest forth, turn thy face in the direction of the sacred mosque; that is indeed the truth from the Lord..”; Quran 55:17, “(mentions on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Rahman/8 , that) (He is) Lord of the two Easts and Lord of the two Wests:”; Reference: Sunan Ibn Majah 1011, in-book reference: Book 5, Hadith 209, English translation: Vol 1, Book 5, Hadith 1011, “(mentions on the website, https://sunnah.com/ibnmajah:1011 , that) The messenger of Allah said, ‘What is between the east and the west is the Qiblah (prayer direction).’ This refers to the Qiblah for the inhabitants of Al-Madinah. (Makkah is the exact south of Al-Madinah,)”; Jami at Tirmidhi 342, in-book reference: Book 2, Hadith 194, English translation: Vol 1, Book 2, Hadith 342, “(mentions on the website, https://sunnah.com/tirmidhi:342 , that) Allah’s messenger said, ‘What is between the east and the west is Qiblah.’ ” The same is mentioned on the website, https://repository.upenn.edu/edissertations/3220/ , that) Scholars of early Islam often take for granted..that facing the qibla (i.e. the geographic direction of worship) is an important Islamic ritual..for prayer..”.
They, who treat the word in Quran to be the word of God to be sacred, have made themselves to be idolatry, since they have treated Quran if it were God’s word from Him to be sacred as His.
Exo 20:13, “Thou shalt not kill.”
Quran 9:5, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-Taubah/8 , supports homicide against pagans is permissible in the book of Quran, since it mentions)..fight and slay the Pagans wherever ye find them, and seize them, beleaguer them..”; Quran 4:89, “(mentions on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+An-Nisa/8 , that) They but wish that ye should reject faith, as they do..if they turn renegades, seize them and slay wherever ye find them..”; Quran 66:9, “(mentions on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-Tahrim/8 , that) O Prophet! Strive hard against the unbelievers and the hypocrites, and be firm against them. Their abode is hell, an evil refuge (indeed).”; Quran 2:216, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , regards fighting is prescribed to them as a good thing, since it mentions) Fighting is prescribed for you, and ye dislike it. But it is possible that ye dislike a thing which is good for you, and that ye love a thing which is bad for you. But Allah knoweth, and ye know not.”; Quran 9:88, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+At-Taubah/8 , supports it is a good thing to fight with your wealth, since it mentions)..the Messenger, and those who believe with him, strive and fight with their wealth and their persons: for them are (all) good things..”.
As Quran 2:216 mentions Allah prescribes any to fight, Quran 3:13, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Aal-e-Imran/8 , supports Allah provides even His aid for them to promote fighting, since it mentions) ‘There has already been for you a sign in the two armies that met (in combat): One was fighting in the cause of Allah, the other resisting Allah; these saw with their own eyes twice their number. But Allah doth support with His aid whom He pleaseth. In this is a warning for such as have eyes to see.”
Exo 20:15, “Thou shalt not steal.”
Quran 8:41, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Anfal/8 , supports it is ethical to steal booty from those who have lost their battle with them, since it mentions) And know that out of all the booty that ye may acquire (in war), a fifth share is assigned to Allah..”. The phrase, a fifth share is assigned to Allah, here seems absurd that Allah, that is in the spiritual world, is interested in booty too.
Exo 20:17, “..thou shalt not covet thy neighbour’s wife..nor his maidservant..”.
Quran 4:3, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+An-Nisa/8 , mentions.. Marry women of your choice, Two or three or four; but if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one, or (a captive) that your right hand possess..”. As the phrase, Marry women of your choice, in Quran 4:3 here implies a man can choose any woman what he likes, it implies he can covet his neighbour’s wife or his maidservant to be his wife as well, since the phrase, choose any woman what he likes, here does not forbid him to choose her.
Quran 4:25, “(on the same website above mentions) If any of you have not the means wherewith to wed free believing women, they may wed believing girls from among those whom your right hands possess..”. The phrase, they may wed believing girls from among those whom your right hands possess, in Quran 4:25 can be interpreted as Quran 4:25, “.. they may wed (Exo 20:17, “..thy neighbour’s wife..<or> maidservant..”) from among those whom your right hands possess..”.
Lev 18:6, “None of you shall approach to any that is near of kin to him, to uncover their nakedness..”; Lev 18:7, “..the nakedness of thy mother..shalt thou not uncover..”; Lev 20:11, “And the man that lieth with his father’s wife hath uncovered his father’s nakedness: both of them shall surely be put to death..”; Lev 20:16-17, “Thou shalt not uncover the nakedness of thy brother’s wife..Thou shalt not uncover the nakedness of a woman and her daughter, neither shalt thou take her sons’ daughter..it is wickedness.”; it is a wicked thing..”.
Quran 24:31, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+An-Noor/8 , supports a man can uncover the nakedness of a believing woman to expose her flesh to lust after her beauty so long as he is her father or her husband’s father or son or husband’s son or her brother or her brother’s son or her sister’s son or male servant, since it mentions) And say to the believing women that they should lower their gaze and guard their modesty; that they should not display their beauty and ornaments except..their husbands, their fathers, their husband’s fathers, their sons, their husbands’ sons, their brothers or their brothers’ sons, or their sisters’ sons, or their women, or the slaves whom their right hands possess, or male servants free of physical..”.
Likewise, as Matt 5:28, “..(mentions) whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committeth adultery with her already in his heart.”, it implies Quran 24:31, “..the believing women..(who show their naked flesh or) their beauty..to..their fathers, their husbands’ fathers, their sons, their husbands’ sons, their brothers or their brothers’ sons, or their sisters’ sons..or male servants..”, have caused the males to lust after their flesh and have committed adultery with her already in their hearts.
Lev 5:4, “Or if a soul swear pronouncing with his lips to do evil, or to do good, whatsoever it be that a man shall pronounce with an oath, and it be hid from him; when he knoweth of it, then he shall be guilty in one of these.”
Quran 5:89, “(on the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Maeda/8 , supports any can hide what is futile, e.g. to do evil, in his oaths and is not guilty, since it mentions) Allah will not call you to account for what is futile in your oaths, but He will call you to account for your deliberate oaths..”.
Not to marry a divorce unless one of the married partners deceases: Deut 24:3-4, “..if a latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife; Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin..”. No doubt the phrase, write her a bill of divorcement, in Deut 24:3 seems to embolden people to divorce, the phrase, Her former husband..may not take her again to be his wife..after that she is defiled, in Deut 24:4 regards the divorce to have caused her to be defiled. Not only that, the subsequent phrase, for that is abomination before the LORD, in Deut 24:4 gives the implication that God abominates the divorce. The same is mentioned in Mal 2:16, “(that) For the LORD, the God of Israel, saith that he hateth (any in) putting away (or divorcing the husband or the wife)..”. Or in other words, Deut 24:4 does not permit any to divorce.
Likewise, Jer 3:1, “..If a man put(s) away (or divorces) his wife, and she go from him, and become another man’s, shall her return her again? shall not that land be greatly polluted? but thou hast played the harlot with many lovers; yet return again to me, saith the LORD.”No doubt the phrase, put away, here seems to embolden people to divorce, the phrase, she..become another man’s..shall not that land be greatly polluted, in Jer 3:1 regards divorce to be a kind of pollution.Not only that, as the phrase, If..she..become another man’s..thou hast played the harlot with many lovers, in Jer 3:1 regards the divorce, who marries with another man, to have played the harlot with many lovers and the phrase, Do not prostitute thy daughter.. to cause her to be a whore..lest the land fall to whoredom..and the land become full of wickedness, in Lev 19:29 forbids any to play harlot, it implies indirectly Jer 3:1 impedes any divorce to remarry.As Jer 3:1, “(mentions)..If a man put away (or divorces) his wife, and become another man’s..(are) play(ing) the harlot with many lovers..”, it leads 1 Cor 7:11, “(to mention)..if she depart(s or divorces), let her remain(s) unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the (former) husband put(s) away his wife.”
The New Testament forbids any to divorce: The phrase, Whosoever shall put away his wife.. saving for the cause of fornication, seems to foster divorce and yet the phrase, whosoever shall put away his wife..causeth her to commit adultery, in Matt 5:32 regards the divorce as adultery. Not only that, the subsequent phrase, whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery, in Matt 5:32 impedes the divorce to remarry. The same is mentioned in Matt 19:9 that the phrase, Whosoever shall put away his wife..except it be for fornication, in Matt 19:9 seems to embolden divorce and yet the phrase, Whosoever shall put away his wife..shall marry another committeth adultery, in Matt 19:9 impedes the divorce to remarry. Not only that, the subsequent phrase, whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery, in Matt 19:9 regards any man who marries the divorce to have committed adultery. The same is mentioned in Mark 10:11-12 that the phrase, Whosoever shall put away his wife..and marry another..committeth adultery against her, in Mark 10:11 regards any man who divorces his wife and marries another woman to be adultery. The phrase, if a woman shall put away her husband..and be married to another..she committeth adultery, in Mark 10:12 regards the divorced woman who marries another man as adultery. The same is mentioned in Luke 16:18 that the phrase, Whosoever putteth away his wife..and marrieth another..committeth adultery, in Luke 16:18 implies any man who puts away his wife and marries another woman as adultery. The phrase, whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery, in Luke 16:18 regards any man who marries the divorce commits adultery.
As the New Testament regards the remarriage of the divorce as adultery, the phrase, if she depart (divorces)..let her remain unmarried..or be reconciled to her husband..and let not the husband put away his wife, in 1 Cor 7:11 implies the divorce has to remain unmarried or to be reconciled to her former husband.
The phrase, The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth..but if her husband be dead..she is at liberty to be married to whom she will..only in the Lord, in 1 Cor 7:39 implies remarriage can only be permissible only if her former husband is dead.The reason why remarriage can only be permissible only if her former husband is dead is Matt 22:30, “..in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.”The phrase, in the resurrection they neither marry, in Matt 22:30 implies their earthly marriage is not recognised in heaven, or else there is no reason why the phrase, they neither marry, to be mentioned in Matt 22:30. Instead, Matt 22:30, “(should consider) For in the resurrection they..marry..” as their earthly marriage would still be considered to be valid in heaven.The same is mentioned in the extracts below: Mark 12:25, “..when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.”; Luke 20:35, “..the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage:”.
As the scriptures discourage divorce, it leads Heb13:4, “(to mention) Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.”
As the phrase, The wife is bound by the law as long as husband liveth..but if her husband be dead..she is at liberty to be married to whom she will, in 1 Cor 7:39 implies remarriage is permissible only if one of the married partners is dead, it implies this rule applies to Deut 25:5.Let’s mediate Deut 25:5, “(as follows:) If brethren dwell together, and one of them die, and have no child, the wife of the dead shall not marry without unto a stranger: her husband’s brother shall go in unto her, and take her to him to wife, and perform the duty of an husband’s brother unto her.”The phrase, one of them die, in Deut 25:5 implies her former husband has to die in order for Deut 25:5, “..her husband’s brother..(to) go in unto her..(to) take her to him to wife..”.Hence, the scriptures only permit remarriage if one of the married partners is dead.Likewise, Matt 22:24-25, “(mentions)..If a man die, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother..”.The phrase, if a man die, in Matt 22:24 demands Matt 22:24, “..(the former husband has to) die..(in order for) his brother..(to) marry his wife..”.
Yet Quran 2:230, “(On the website, http://search-the-quran.com/search/Surah+Al-Baqara/8 , emboldens the divorce to remarry despite her former husband has not deceased, since it mentions) So if a husband divorces his wife (irrevocably), he cannot, after that, re-marry her until she has married another husband and he has divorced her. In that case there is no blame on either of them if they re-unite, provided they feel that they can keep the limits ordained by Allah..”.
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